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DeVry NR392 Entire Course Latest 2017

DeVry NR392 Entire Course Latest 2017, http://devryfinalexam.com/downloads/devry-nr392-entire-course-latest-2017/, DeVry NR392 Entire Course Latest 2017, http://devryfinalexam.com/downloads/devry-nr392-entire-course-latest-2017/, DeVry NR392 Entire Course Latest 2017

2017-08-26 • 5 Cards

DeVry HRM 330 ( Labor Relations ) Final Exam

DeVry HRM 330 ( Labor Relations ) Final Exam, http://devryfinalexam.com/downloads/devry-hrm-330-labor-relations-final-exam/, DeVry HRM 330 ( Labor Relations ) Final Exam, http://devryfinalexam.com/downloads/devry-hrm-330-labor-relations-final-exam/, DeVry HRM 330 ( Labor Relations ) Final Exam

2017-08-26 • 5 Cards

ECON 545 Final Exam Answers

ECON 545 Final Exam Answers http://homeworktimes.com/downloads/econ-545-final-exam-answers/ 1. Question : (TCO A) Suppose you are hired to manage a small manufacturing facility that produces Widgets. (a.) (15 points) You know from data collected on the Widget Market that market demand and market supply have both increased recently. As manager of the facility, what decisions should you make regarding production levels and pricing for your Widget facility? Remember that supply and demand are about the market supply and market demand, which is bigger than your own company. You are being given data on supply and demand for the whole market and are being asked what effect that has on you as a small part of that market. (b.) (15 points) Now, suppose that following the supply and demand changes in (a), a substitute good goes up in price, and your costs of production increase. What new decisions will you make regarding production levels and pricing for your Widget facility? 2. Question : (TCO B) Here is some data on the demand for marshmallows: Price Quantity $10 100 $ 8 300 $ 6 700 $ 4 1300 $ 2 2200 (a.) (15 points) Is demand elastic or inelastic in the $6-$8 price range? How do you know? (b.) (15 points) If the table represents the demand faced by a monopoly firm, then what is that firm’s marginal revenue as it increases output from 1300 units to 2200 units? Show all work. (Be careful here!) 3. Question : (TCO C) You have been hired to manage a small manufacturing facility whose cost and production data are given in the table below. Total Total Workers Labor Cost Output Revenue 1 $500 100 $700 2 1000 280 1150 3 1500 440 1440 4 2000 540 1570 5 2500 600 1670 6 3000 630 1710 7 3500 640 1730 (a.) (6 points) What is the marginal product of the second worker? (b.) (6 points) What is the marginal revenue product of the fourth worker? (c.) (6 points) What is the marginal cost of the first worker? (d.) (12 points) Based on your knowledge of marginal analysis, how many workers should you hire? Explain you answer. 4. Question : (TCO C) Answer the next questions on the basis of the following cost data for a firm in pure competition: OUTPUT —— TFC ———- TVC 0 $100.00 0.00 1 100.00 70.00 2 100.00 120.00 3 100.00 150.00 4 100.00 200.00 5 100.00 270.00 6 100.00 360.00 (a.) (15 points) Refer to the above data. If the product price is $45 at its optimal output, will the firm realize an economic profit, break even, or incur an economic loss? How much will the profit or loss be? Show all calculations. (b.) (15 points) Refer to the above data. If the product price is $75 at its optimal output, will the firm realize an economic profit, break even, or incur an economic loss? How much will the profit or loss be? Show all calculations. 5. Question : (TCO D) A software producer has fixed costs of $18,000 per month and her Total Variable Costs (TVC) as a function of output Q are given below: Q TVC Price 1,000 $15,000 $25 2,000 20,000 24 3,000 30,000 23 4,000 50,000 22 5,000 80,000 20 (a.) (15 points) If software can only be produced in the quantities above, what should be the production level if the producer operates in a monopolistic competitive market where the price of software at each possible quantity is also listed above? Why? (Show all work). (b.) (15 points) What should be the production level if fixed costs rose to $48,000 per month? Explain. 6. Question : (TCO F) (a.) (20 points) Suppose nominal GDP in 1999 was $200 billion, and in 2001, it was $270 billion. The general price index in 1999 was 100 and in 2001 it was 150. Between 1999 and 2001, the real GDP rose by what percent? (b.) Use the following scenario to answer questions (b1) and (b2). In a given year in the United States, the total number of residents is 270 million, the number of residents under the age of 16 is 38 million, the number of institutionalized adults is 15 million, the number of adults who are not looking for work is 17 million, and the number of unemployed is 10 million. (b1.) (5 points) Refer to the data in the above scenario. What is the size of the labor force in the United States for the given year? (b2.) (5 points) Refer to the data in the above scenario. What is the unemployment rate in the United States for the given year? 7. Question : (TCO G and H) (a.) (15 points) Suppose your local Congress representative suggests that the federal government intervenes in the gasoline market to stop runaway price increases. Would you say that this view basically supports the Keynesian or the Monetarist school of thought? Why? What position would the opposing school of thought take on this issue? (Be brief — you can answer this in 2 or 3 brief paragraphs). (b.) (10 points) Any change in the economy’s total expenditures would be expected to translate into a change in GDP that was larger than the initial change in spending. This phenomenon is known as the multiplier effect. Explain how the multiplier effect works. (c.) (15 points) You are told that 90 cents out of every extra dollar pumped into the economy goes toward consumption (as opposed to saving). Estimate the GDP impact of a positive change in government spending that equals $20 billion. 8. Question : (TCO G) (a.) (20 points) Third National Bank is fully loaned up with reserves of $20,000 and demand deposits equal to $100,000. The reserve ratio is 20%. Households deposit $5,000 in currency into the bank. How much excess reserves does the bank now have, and what is the maximum amount of new money that can be created in the banking system as a result of this deposit? Show all work. (b.) (20 points) What is the discount rate in the banking system? Explain how the Fed manipulates this rate to achieve macroeconomic objectives. 9. Question : (TCO E and I) Let the exchange rate be defined as the number of dollars per British pound. Assume there is a decrease in U.S. interest rates relative to that of Britain. (a.) (10 points) Would this event cause the demand for the dollar to increase or decrease relative to the demand for the pound? Why? (b.) (10 points) Has the dollar appreciated or depreciated in value relative to the pound? (c.) (10 points) Does this change in the value of the dollar make imports cheaper or more expensive for Americans? Are American exports cheaper or more expensive for importers of U.S. goods in Great Britain? Illustrate by showing the price of a U.S. cell phone in Britain before and after the change in the exchange rate. (d.) (10 points) If you had a business exporting goods to Britain, and U.S. interest rates fell as they have in this example, would you plan to expand production or cut back? Why?, ECON 545 Final Exam Answers http://homeworktimes.com/downloads/econ-545-final-exam-answers/ 1. Question : (TCO A) Suppose you are hired to manage a small manufacturing facility that produces Widgets. (a.) (15 points) You know from data collected on the Widget Market that market demand and market supply have both increased recently. As manager of the facility, what decisions should you make regarding production levels and pricing for your Widget facility? Remember that supply and demand are about the market supply and market demand, which is bigger than your own company. You are being given data on supply and demand for the whole market and are being asked what effect that has on you as a small part of that market. (b.) (15 points) Now, suppose that following the supply and demand changes in (a), a substitute good goes up in price, and your costs of production increase. What new decisions will you make regarding production levels and pricing for your Widget facility? 2. Question : (TCO B) Here is some data on the demand for marshmallows: Price Quantity $10 100 $ 8 300 $ 6 700 $ 4 1300 $ 2 2200 (a.) (15 points) Is demand elastic or inelastic in the $6-$8 price range? How do you know? (b.) (15 points) If the table represents the demand faced by a monopoly firm, then what is that firm’s marginal revenue as it increases output from 1300 units to 2200 units? Show all work. (Be careful here!) 3. Question : (TCO C) You have been hired to manage a small manufacturing facility whose cost and production data are given in the table below. Total Total Workers Labor Cost Output Revenue 1 $500 100 $700 2 1000 280 1150 3 1500 440 1440 4 2000 540 1570 5 2500 600 1670 6 3000 630 1710 7 3500 640 1730 (a.) (6 points) What is the marginal product of the second worker? (b.) (6 points) What is the marginal revenue product of the fourth worker? (c.) (6 points) What is the marginal cost of the first worker? (d.) (12 points) Based on your knowledge of marginal analysis, how many workers should you hire? Explain you answer. 4. Question : (TCO C) Answer the next questions on the basis of the following cost data for a firm in pure competition: OUTPUT —— TFC ———- TVC 0 $100.00 0.00 1 100.00 70.00 2 100.00 120.00 3 100.00 150.00 4 100.00 200.00 5 100.00 270.00 6 100.00 360.00 (a.) (15 points) Refer to the above data. If the product price is $45 at its optimal output, will the firm realize an economic profit, break even, or incur an economic loss? How much will the profit or loss be? Show all calculations. (b.) (15 points) Refer to the above data. If the product price is $75 at its optimal output, will the firm realize an economic profit, break even, or incur an economic loss? How much will the profit or loss be? Show all calculations. 5. Question : (TCO D) A software producer has fixed costs of $18,000 per month and her Total Variable Costs (TVC) as a function of output Q are given below: Q TVC Price 1,000 $15,000 $25 2,000 20,000 24 3,000 30,000 23 4,000 50,000 22 5,000 80,000 20 (a.) (15 points) If software can only be produced in the quantities above, what should be the production level if the producer operates in a monopolistic competitive market where the price of software at each possible quantity is also listed above? Why? (Show all work). (b.) (15 points) What should be the production level if fixed costs rose to $48,000 per month? Explain. 6. Question : (TCO F) (a.) (20 points) Suppose nominal GDP in 1999 was $200 billion, and in 2001, it was $270 billion. The general price index in 1999 was 100 and in 2001 it was 150. Between 1999 and 2001, the real GDP rose by what percent? (b.) Use the following scenario to answer questions (b1) and (b2). In a given year in the United States, the total number of residents is 270 million, the number of residents under the age of 16 is 38 million, the number of institutionalized adults is 15 million, the number of adults who are not looking for work is 17 million, and the number of unemployed is 10 million. (b1.) (5 points) Refer to the data in the above scenario. What is the size of the labor force in the United States for the given year? (b2.) (5 points) Refer to the data in the above scenario. What is the unemployment rate in the United States for the given year? 7. Question : (TCO G and H) (a.) (15 points) Suppose your local Congress representative suggests that the federal government intervenes in the gasoline market to stop runaway price increases. Would you say that this view basically supports the Keynesian or the Monetarist school of thought? Why? What position would the opposing school of thought take on this issue? (Be brief — you can answer this in 2 or 3 brief paragraphs). (b.) (10 points) Any change in the economy’s total expenditures would be expected to translate into a change in GDP that was larger than the initial change in spending. This phenomenon is known as the multiplier effect. Explain how the multiplier effect works. (c.) (15 points) You are told that 90 cents out of every extra dollar pumped into the economy goes toward consumption (as opposed to saving). Estimate the GDP impact of a positive change in government spending that equals $20 billion. 8. Question : (TCO G) (a.) (20 points) Third National Bank is fully loaned up with reserves of $20,000 and demand deposits equal to $100,000. The reserve ratio is 20%. Households deposit $5,000 in currency into the bank. How much excess reserves does the bank now have, and what is the maximum amount of new money that can be created in the banking system as a result of this deposit? Show all work. (b.) (20 points) What is the discount rate in the banking system? Explain how the Fed manipulates this rate to achieve macroeconomic objectives. 9. Question : (TCO E and I) Let the exchange rate be defined as the number of dollars per British pound. Assume there is a decrease in U.S. interest rates relative to that of Britain. (a.) (10 points) Would this event cause the demand for the dollar to increase or decrease relative to the demand for the pound? Why? (b.) (10 points) Has the dollar appreciated or depreciated in value relative to the pound? (c.) (10 points) Does this change in the value of the dollar make imports cheaper or more expensive for Americans? Are American exports cheaper or more expensive for importers of U.S. goods in Great Britain? Illustrate by showing the price of a U.S. cell phone in Britain before and after the change in the exchange rate. (d.) (10 points) If you had a business exporting goods to Britain, and U.S. interest rates fell as they have in this example, would you plan to expand production or cut back? Why?, ECON 545 Final Exam Answers http://homeworktimes.com/downloads/econ-545-final-exam-answers/ 1. Question : (TCO A) Suppose you are hired to manage a small manufacturing facility that produces Widgets. (a.) (15 points) You know from data collected on the Widget Market that market demand and market supply have both increased recently. As manager of the facility, what decisions should you make regarding production levels and pricing for your Widget facility? Remember that supply and demand are about the market supply and market demand, which is bigger than your own company. You are being given data on supply and demand for the whole market and are being asked what effect that has on you as a small part of that market. (b.) (15 points) Now, suppose that following the supply and demand changes in (a), a substitute good goes up in price, and your costs of production increase. What new decisions will you make regarding production levels and pricing for your Widget facility? 2. Question : (TCO B) Here is some data on the demand for marshmallows: Price Quantity $10 100 $ 8 300 $ 6 700 $ 4 1300 $ 2 2200 (a.) (15 points) Is demand elastic or inelastic in the $6-$8 price range? How do you know? (b.) (15 points) If the table represents the demand faced by a monopoly firm, then what is that firm’s marginal revenue as it increases output from 1300 units to 2200 units? Show all work. (Be careful here!) 3. Question : (TCO C) You have been hired to manage a small manufacturing facility whose cost and production data are given in the table below. Total Total Workers Labor Cost Output Revenue 1 $500 100 $700 2 1000 280 1150 3 1500 440 1440 4 2000 540 1570 5 2500 600 1670 6 3000 630 1710 7 3500 640 1730 (a.) (6 points) What is the marginal product of the second worker? (b.) (6 points) What is the marginal revenue product of the fourth worker? (c.) (6 points) What is the marginal cost of the first worker? (d.) (12 points) Based on your knowledge of marginal analysis, how many workers should you hire? Explain you answer. 4. Question : (TCO C) Answer the next questions on the basis of the following cost data for a firm in pure competition: OUTPUT —— TFC ———- TVC 0 $100.00 0.00 1 100.00 70.00 2 100.00 120.00 3 100.00 150.00 4 100.00 200.00 5 100.00 270.00 6 100.00 360.00 (a.) (15 points) Refer to the above data. If the product price is $45 at its optimal output, will the firm realize an economic profit, break even, or incur an economic loss? How much will the profit or loss be? Show all calculations. (b.) (15 points) Refer to the above data. If the product price is $75 at its optimal output, will the firm realize an economic profit, break even, or incur an economic loss? How much will the profit or loss be? Show all calculations. 5. Question : (TCO D) A software producer has fixed costs of $18,000 per month and her Total Variable Costs (TVC) as a function of output Q are given below: Q TVC Price 1,000 $15,000 $25 2,000 20,000 24 3,000 30,000 23 4,000 50,000 22 5,000 80,000 20 (a.) (15 points) If software can only be produced in the quantities above, what should be the production level if the producer operates in a monopolistic competitive market where the price of software at each possible quantity is also listed above? Why? (Show all work). (b.) (15 points) What should be the production level if fixed costs rose to $48,000 per month? Explain. 6. Question : (TCO F) (a.) (20 points) Suppose nominal GDP in 1999 was $200 billion, and in 2001, it was $270 billion. The general price index in 1999 was 100 and in 2001 it was 150. Between 1999 and 2001, the real GDP rose by what percent? (b.) Use the following scenario to answer questions (b1) and (b2). In a given year in the United States, the total number of residents is 270 million, the number of residents under the age of 16 is 38 million, the number of institutionalized adults is 15 million, the number of adults who are not looking for work is 17 million, and the number of unemployed is 10 million. (b1.) (5 points) Refer to the data in the above scenario. What is the size of the labor force in the United States for the given year? (b2.) (5 points) Refer to the data in the above scenario. What is the unemployment rate in the United States for the given year? 7. Question : (TCO G and H) (a.) (15 points) Suppose your local Congress representative suggests that the federal government intervenes in the gasoline market to stop runaway price increases. Would you say that this view basically supports the Keynesian or the Monetarist school of thought? Why? What position would the opposing school of thought take on this issue? (Be brief — you can answer this in 2 or 3 brief paragraphs). (b.) (10 points) Any change in the economy’s total expenditures would be expected to translate into a change in GDP that was larger than the initial change in spending. This phenomenon is known as the multiplier effect. Explain how the multiplier effect works. (c.) (15 points) You are told that 90 cents out of every extra dollar pumped into the economy goes toward consumption (as opposed to saving). Estimate the GDP impact of a positive change in government spending that equals $20 billion. 8. Question : (TCO G) (a.) (20 points) Third National Bank is fully loaned up with reserves of $20,000 and demand deposits equal to $100,000. The reserve ratio is 20%. Households deposit $5,000 in currency into the bank. How much excess reserves does the bank now have, and what is the maximum amount of new money that can be created in the banking system as a result of this deposit? Show all work. (b.) (20 points) What is the discount rate in the banking system? Explain how the Fed manipulates this rate to achieve macroeconomic objectives. 9. Question : (TCO E and I) Let the exchange rate be defined as the number of dollars per British pound. Assume there is a decrease in U.S. interest rates relative to that of Britain. (a.) (10 points) Would this event cause the demand for the dollar to increase or decrease relative to the demand for the pound? Why? (b.) (10 points) Has the dollar appreciated or depreciated in value relative to the pound? (c.) (10 points) Does this change in the value of the dollar make imports cheaper or more expensive for Americans? Are American exports cheaper or more expensive for importers of U.S. goods in Great Britain? Illustrate by showing the price of a U.S. cell phone in Britain before and after the change in the exchange rate. (d.) (10 points) If you had a business exporting goods to Britain, and U.S. interest rates fell as they have in this example, would you plan to expand production or cut back? Why?

2015-09-04 • 3 Cards

ACC 492 Final Exam Answers – All Possible Questions

ACC 492 Final Exam Answers – All Possible Questions http://homeworktimes.com/downloads/acc-492-final-exam-answers-possible-questions/ The bonding of employees will normally be expected to: 1. “weed out” dishonest employees already hired. 1. serve as a deterrent to dishonesty. 1. guarantee that all employee fraud will be prevented. 1. eliminate the need for separation of duties in the cash receipts area. 2) All sales, cash receipts, and sales adjustments are accurately valued using GAPP and correctly journalized, summarized, and posted. These actions are transaction objectives for: 1. occurance 1. cutoff 1. accurancy 1. completeness 3) Disclosure objectives include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. occurrence and rights and obligations 1. classification and understandability 1. completeness 1. cutoff 4) The extent of the auditor’s inventory test count would LEAST depend on which of the following? 1. The nature and composition of the inventory. 1. The existence of inventory at multiple locations. 1. The effectiveness of controls pertaining to maintenance of perpetual records. 1. The care exercised by client employees in taking the inventory. 5) When statistical sampling methods are used by the client in determining inventories, professional standards require that the auditor ascertain the following EXCEPT that the: 1. sampling plan has statistical validity. 1. appropriate tests of transactions have been applied. 1. results in terms of reliability are reasonable. 1. sampling plan has been properly applied. 6) The auditor’s strategy in performing test counts during the inventory observation is to: 1. concentrate tests on high dollar items and take a representative sample of other items. 1. concentrate tests in areas where employees seem to be disregarding the inventory instructions. 1. randomly select all test items. 1. test all high dollar items. 7) Observation of inventories is a required audit procedure whenever: 1. inventories are material. 1. the auditor considers it to be necessary. 1. it is practicable and reasonable. 1. inventories are material and it is practicable and reasonable. 8) With a manufacturer, wholesaler, or retailer, however, inherent risk for inventory may be assessed at or near the maximum level for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: 1. inventories are often stored at multiple sites, adding to the difficulties associated with maintaining physical controls over theft and damages, and properly accounting for goods in transit between sites. 2. the volume of purchases, manufacturing, and sales transactions that affects these accounts is generally high, decreasing the opportunities for misstatements to occur. 3. inventories are vulnerable to spoilage, obsolescence, and other factors such as general economic conditions that may affect demand and salability, and thus the proper valuation of the inventories. 4. the wide diversity of inventory items may present special problems in determining their quality and market value. 9) During the observation of the inventory, the auditor has NO responsibility to: 1. observe the taking of the inventory by client personnel. 1. make inquiries of the client concerning the inventories. 1. supervise the taking of the inventory. 1. make some test counts of inventory quantities. 10) The specific audit objective that all purchase transactions and cash disbursements are valued using GAAP and correctly journalized, summarized, and posted relates to: 1. rights and obligations. 1. completeness. 1. valuation or allocation. 1. existence or occurrence. 11) The specific audit objective that recorded purchases represent goods, services, and productive assets received during the period relates to: 1. rights and obligations. 1. completeness. 1. presentation and disclosure. 1. existence or occurrence. 12) The specific audit objective that all purchases and cash disbursements made during the period were recorded relates to: 1. rights and obligations. 1. completeness. 1. presentation and disclosure. 1. existence or occurrence. 13) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments, investment balances are properly identified and classified in the financial statements, relates to the: 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. presentation or disclosure assertion. 1. rights and obligations assertion. 14) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments, all recorded investments are owned by the reporting entity, relates to the: 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. valuation or allocation assertion. 1. rights and obligations assertion. 15) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments, all investments are included in the balance sheet investment accounts, relates to the: 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. valuation or allocation assertion. 1. rights and obligations assertion. 16) The specific account balance audit objective, plant assets and related expenses are properly identified and classified in the financial statements, relates to the: 1. rights and obligations assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. presentation or disclosure assertion. 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 17) The audit significance of the financial ratio, fixed asset turnover, is: 1. this financial ratio provides a reasonableness test of the entity’s proportion of equity that may be compared with prior years’ experience or industry data. 1. an unexpected increase or decrease in the depreciation expense as a percent of depreciable assets may indicate an error in calculating depreciation. 1. this financial ratio provides a test of the entity’s ability to generate earnings to cover the cost of service debt. 1. an unexpected increase in this financial ratio may indicate the failure to record or capitalize depreciable assets. 18) The substantive test of calculating fixed asset turnover is categorized under: 1. initial procedures. 1. analytical procedures. 1. tests of details of balances. 1. tests of details of transactions. 19) In confirming bank deposits, the auditor need NOT: 1. send two copies of the standard confirmation to the bank. 1. send requests for accounts with zero balances at the end of the year. 1. personally mail the requests. 1. have the bank return the original to the client. 20) The standard bank confirmation, developed jointly by the AICPA, the American Bankers Association, and the Bank Administration Institute, requests information about all of the following EXCEPT: 1. loan interest rates. 1. loan balances. 1. deposit balances. 1. secondary endorsements. 21) The control of all funds during the count of cash on hand is meant primarily to prevent: 1. any chance of double counting. 1. unauthorized disbursements. 1. transfers by the client. 1. client personnel from viewing the count procedure. 22) Whether the entity maintains effective controls to provide reasonable assurance that private customer information obtained as a result of e-commerce is protected from uses not related to the entity’s business defines: 1. information protection. 1. risk assessment. 1. transaction integrity. 1. performance measurement. 23) Best practices in approaching risk management include the following steps EXCEPT: 1. calculate revenue losses from risks. 1. analyze and assess risks. 1. identify risks. 1. design strategies for managing risk. 24) In performing an attest engagement, a CPA performs all of the following EXCEPT: 1. gathers evidence to support the assertions. 1. objectively assesses the measurements of assertions. 1. relies on management statements. 1. objectively assesses the communications of the individual making the assertions. 25) Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of the procedures performed in completing the audit? 1. They involve many subjective judgments by the auditor. 1. They are performed after the balance sheet date. 1. They are optional since they have only an indirect impact on the opinion to be expressed. 1. They are usually performed by audit managers or other senior members of the audit team who have extensive audit experience with the client. 26) The auditor relies on the client representation letter to: 1. document the continuing materiality of client representations. 1. guarantee the absence of management fraud. 1. confirm written representations given to the auditor. 1. reduce the possibility of misunderstanding concerning management’s representations. 27) In performing an attest engagement, a CPA performs all of the following EXCEPT: 1. gathers evidence to support the assertions. 1. objectively assesses the measurements of assertions. 1. relies on management statements. 1. objectively assesses the communications of the individual making the assertions. 28) Which of the following is NOT among the specific auditing procedures the auditor performs to obtain additional audit evidence? 1. reading minutes of meetings 1. reviewing evidence concerning litigation, claims, and assessments 1. making subsequent events review 1. obtaining client representation letter 29) In regard to identifying and evaluating subsequent events, AU 560.12 specifies that the auditor inquires of management having responsibility for financial and accounting matters as to all of the following EXCEPT: 1. any significant changes in capital stock, long-term debt, or working capital to the date of inquiry. 1. the minutes of meetings of directors, stockholders, and other appropriate committees. 1. any substantial contingent liabilities or commitments existing at the balance sheet date or date of inquiry. 1. the current status of items previously accounted for on the basis of tentative, preliminary, or inconclusive data. 30) When an investigation of the discovery of facts existing at the report date confirms the existence of the fact and the auditor believes the information is important to those relying or likely to rely on the financial statements, the auditor should immediately: 1. notify the SEC or other regulatory agency. 1. notify the audit committee. 1. take steps to prevent future reliance on the audit report. 1. resign from the engagement. 31) The two main sections of the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct are: 1. Rules of Conduct and Interpretations of the Rules of Conduct. 1. Principles and Ethics Rulings. 1. Principles and Rules of Conduct. 1. Interpretations of the Rules of Conduct and Ethics Rulings. 32) In general, except when explicitly stated otherwise, the Rules of Conduct in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct are applicable to: 1. all professional services. 1. all members and all professional services. 1. all members. 1. all members in public practice. 33) Which one of the following is NOT true of the Principles in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct? 1. They are set forth as enforceable standards. 1. They are expressions of ideals of professional conduct. 1. They provide a framework for the Rules. 1. They express the basic tenets of ethical conduct. 34) Gross negligence can best be defined as: 1. misrepresentation. 1. criminal fraud. 1. failure to exercise due care. 1. failure to exercise even slight care. 35) Anyone identified to the auditor by name prior to the audit who is to be the principal recipient of the auditor’s report is a 1. foreseen beneficiary. 1. foreseeable party. 1. third party. 1. primary beneficiary. 36) The Fund of Funds case illustrated that auditors could be found liable for failure to report wrong-doings discovered: 1. on any type of engagement for a particular client. 1. even on engagements for other clients. 1. only on audit engagements for a particular client. 1. only on special fraud audits conducted under separate contract. ACC 492 Final Exam Answers – All Possible Questions http://homeworktimes.com/downloads/acc-492-final-exam-answers-possible-questions/ The bonding of employees will normally be expected to: 1. “weed out” dishonest employees already hired. 1. serve as a deterrent to dishonesty. 1. guarantee that all employee fraud will be prevented. 1. eliminate the need for separation of duties in the cash receipts area. 2) All sales, cash receipts, and sales adjustments are accurately valued using GAPP and correctly journalized, summarized, and posted. These actions are transaction objectives for: 1. occurance 1. cutoff 1. accurancy 1. completeness 3) Disclosure objectives include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. occurrence and rights and obligations 1. classification and understandability 1. completeness 1. cutoff 4) The extent of the auditor’s inventory test count would LEAST depend on which of the following? 1. The nature and composition of the inventory. 1. The existence of inventory at multiple locations. 1. The effectiveness of controls pertaining to maintenance of perpetual records. 1. The care exercised by client employees in taking the inventory. 5) When statistical sampling methods are used by the client in determining inventories, professional standards require that the auditor ascertain the following EXCEPT that the: 1. sampling plan has statistical validity. 1. appropriate tests of transactions have been applied. 1. results in terms of reliability are reasonable. 1. sampling plan has been properly applied. 6) The auditor’s strategy in performing test counts during the inventory observation is to: 1. concentrate tests on high dollar items and take a representative sample of other items. 1. concentrate tests in areas where employees seem to be disregarding the inventory instructions. 1. randomly select all test items. 1. test all high dollar items. 7) Observation of inventories is a required audit procedure whenever: 1. inventories are material. 1. the auditor considers it to be necessary. 1. it is practicable and reasonable. 1. inventories are material and it is practicable and reasonable. 8) With a manufacturer, wholesaler, or retailer, however, inherent risk for inventory may be assessed at or near the maximum level for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: 1. inventories are often stored at multiple sites, adding to the difficulties associated with maintaining physical controls over theft and damages, and properly accounting for goods in transit between sites. 2. the volume of purchases, manufacturing, and sales transactions that affects these accounts is generally high, decreasing the opportunities for misstatements to occur. 3. inventories are vulnerable to spoilage, obsolescence, and other factors such as general economic conditions that may affect demand and salability, and thus the proper valuation of the inventories. 4. the wide diversity of inventory items may present special problems in determining their quality and market value. 9) During the observation of the inventory, the auditor has NO responsibility to: 1. observe the taking of the inventory by client personnel. 1. make inquiries of the client concerning the inventories. 1. supervise the taking of the inventory. 1. make some test counts of inventory quantities. 10) The specific audit objective that all purchase transactions and cash disbursements are valued using GAAP and correctly journalized, summarized, and posted relates to: 1. rights and obligations. 1. completeness. 1. valuation or allocation. 1. existence or occurrence. 11) The specific audit objective that recorded purchases represent goods, services, and productive assets received during the period relates to: 1. rights and obligations. 1. completeness. 1. presentation and disclosure. 1. existence or occurrence. 12) The specific audit objective that all purchases and cash disbursements made during the period were recorded relates to: 1. rights and obligations. 1. completeness. 1. presentation and disclosure. 1. existence or occurrence. 13) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments, investment balances are properly identified and classified in the financial statements, relates to the: 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. presentation or disclosure assertion. 1. rights and obligations assertion. 14) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments, all recorded investments are owned by the reporting entity, relates to the: 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. valuation or allocation assertion. 1. rights and obligations assertion. 15) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments, all investments are included in the balance sheet investment accounts, relates to the: 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. valuation or allocation assertion. 1. rights and obligations assertion. 16) The specific account balance audit objective, plant assets and related expenses are properly identified and classified in the financial statements, relates to the: 1. rights and obligations assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. presentation or disclosure assertion. 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 17) The audit significance of the financial ratio, fixed asset turnover, is: 1. this financial ratio provides a reasonableness test of the entity’s proportion of equity that may be compared with prior years’ experience or industry data. 1. an unexpected increase or decrease in the depreciation expense as a percent of depreciable assets may indicate an error in calculating depreciation. 1. this financial ratio provides a test of the entity’s ability to generate earnings to cover the cost of service debt. 1. an unexpected increase in this financial ratio may indicate the failure to record or capitalize depreciable assets. 18) The substantive test of calculating fixed asset turnover is categorized under: 1. initial procedures. 1. analytical procedures. 1. tests of details of balances. 1. tests of details of transactions. 19) In confirming bank deposits, the auditor need NOT: 1. send two copies of the standard confirmation to the bank. 1. send requests for accounts with zero balances at the end of the year. 1. personally mail the requests. 1. have the bank return the original to the client. 20) The standard bank confirmation, developed jointly by the AICPA, the American Bankers Association, and the Bank Administration Institute, requests information about all of the following EXCEPT: 1. loan interest rates. 1. loan balances. 1. deposit balances. 1. secondary endorsements. 21) The control of all funds during the count of cash on hand is meant primarily to prevent: 1. any chance of double counting. 1. unauthorized disbursements. 1. transfers by the client. 1. client personnel from viewing the count procedure. 22) Whether the entity maintains effective controls to provide reasonable assurance that private customer information obtained as a result of e-commerce is protected from uses not related to the entity’s business defines: 1. information protection. 1. risk assessment. 1. transaction integrity. 1. performance measurement. 23) Best practices in approaching risk management include the following steps EXCEPT: 1. calculate revenue losses from risks. 1. analyze and assess risks. 1. identify risks. 1. design strategies for managing risk. 24) In performing an attest engagement, a CPA performs all of the following EXCEPT: 1. gathers evidence to support the assertions. 1. objectively assesses the measurements of assertions. 1. relies on management statements. 1. objectively assesses the communications of the individual making the assertions. 25) Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of the procedures performed in completing the audit? 1. They involve many subjective judgments by the auditor. 1. They are performed after the balance sheet date. 1. They are optional since they have only an indirect impact on the opinion to be expressed. 1. They are usually performed by audit managers or other senior members of the audit team who have extensive audit experience with the client. 26) The auditor relies on the client representation letter to: 1. document the continuing materiality of client representations. 1. guarantee the absence of management fraud. 1. confirm written representations given to the auditor. 1. reduce the possibility of misunderstanding concerning management’s representations. 27) In performing an attest engagement, a CPA performs all of the following EXCEPT: 1. gathers evidence to support the assertions. 1. objectively assesses the measurements of assertions. 1. relies on management statements. 1. objectively assesses the communications of the individual making the assertions. 28) Which of the following is NOT among the specific auditing procedures the auditor performs to obtain additional audit evidence? 1. reading minutes of meetings 1. reviewing evidence concerning litigation, claims, and assessments 1. making subsequent events review 1. obtaining client representation letter 29) In regard to identifying and evaluating subsequent events, AU 560.12 specifies that the auditor inquires of management having responsibility for financial and accounting matters as to all of the following EXCEPT: 1. any significant changes in capital stock, long-term debt, or working capital to the date of inquiry. 1. the minutes of meetings of directors, stockholders, and other appropriate committees. 1. any substantial contingent liabilities or commitments existing at the balance sheet date or date of inquiry. 1. the current status of items previously accounted for on the basis of tentative, preliminary, or inconclusive data. 30) When an investigation of the discovery of facts existing at the report date confirms the existence of the fact and the auditor believes the information is important to those relying or likely to rely on the financial statements, the auditor should immediately: 1. notify the SEC or other regulatory agency. 1. notify the audit committee. 1. take steps to prevent future reliance on the audit report. 1. resign from the engagement. 31) The two main sections of the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct are: 1. Rules of Conduct and Interpretations of the Rules of Conduct. 1. Principles and Ethics Rulings. 1. Principles and Rules of Conduct. 1. Interpretations of the Rules of Conduct and Ethics Rulings. 32) In general, except when explicitly stated otherwise, the Rules of Conduct in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct are applicable to: 1. all professional services. 1. all members and all professional services. 1. all members. 1. all members in public practice. 33) Which one of the following is NOT true of the Principles in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct? 1. They are set forth as enforceable standards. 1. They are expressions of ideals of professional conduct. 1. They provide a framework for the Rules. 1. They express the basic tenets of ethical conduct. 34) Gross negligence can best be defined as: 1. misrepresentation. 1. criminal fraud. 1. failure to exercise due care. 1. failure to exercise even slight care. 35) Anyone identified to the auditor by name prior to the audit who is to be the principal recipient of the auditor’s report is a 1. foreseen beneficiary. 1. foreseeable party. 1. third party. 1. primary beneficiary. 36) The Fund of Funds case illustrated that auditors could be found liable for failure to report wrong-doings discovered: 1. on any type of engagement for a particular client. 1. even on engagements for other clients. 1. only on audit engagements for a particular client. 1. only on special fraud audits conducted under separate contract., ACC 492 Final Exam Answers – All Possible Questions http://homeworktimes.com/downloads/acc-492-final-exam-answers-possible-questions/ The bonding of employees will normally be expected to: 1. “weed out” dishonest employees already hired. 1. serve as a deterrent to dishonesty. 1. guarantee that all employee fraud will be prevented. 1. eliminate the need for separation of duties in the cash receipts area. 2) All sales, cash receipts, and sales adjustments are accurately valued using GAPP and correctly journalized, summarized, and posted. These actions are transaction objectives for: 1. occurance 1. cutoff 1. accurancy 1. completeness 3) Disclosure objectives include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. occurrence and rights and obligations 1. classification and understandability 1. completeness 1. cutoff 4) The extent of the auditor’s inventory test count would LEAST depend on which of the following? 1. The nature and composition of the inventory. 1. The existence of inventory at multiple locations. 1. The effectiveness of controls pertaining to maintenance of perpetual records. 1. The care exercised by client employees in taking the inventory. 5) When statistical sampling methods are used by the client in determining inventories, professional standards require that the auditor ascertain the following EXCEPT that the: 1. sampling plan has statistical validity. 1. appropriate tests of transactions have been applied. 1. results in terms of reliability are reasonable. 1. sampling plan has been properly applied. 6) The auditor’s strategy in performing test counts during the inventory observation is to: 1. concentrate tests on high dollar items and take a representative sample of other items. 1. concentrate tests in areas where employees seem to be disregarding the inventory instructions. 1. randomly select all test items. 1. test all high dollar items. 7) Observation of inventories is a required audit procedure whenever: 1. inventories are material. 1. the auditor considers it to be necessary. 1. it is practicable and reasonable. 1. inventories are material and it is practicable and reasonable. 8) With a manufacturer, wholesaler, or retailer, however, inherent risk for inventory may be assessed at or near the maximum level for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: 1. inventories are often stored at multiple sites, adding to the difficulties associated with maintaining physical controls over theft and damages, and properly accounting for goods in transit between sites. 2. the volume of purchases, manufacturing, and sales transactions that affects these accounts is generally high, decreasing the opportunities for misstatements to occur. 3. inventories are vulnerable to spoilage, obsolescence, and other factors such as general economic conditions that may affect demand and salability, and thus the proper valuation of the inventories. 4. the wide diversity of inventory items may present special problems in determining their quality and market value. 9) During the observation of the inventory, the auditor has NO responsibility to: 1. observe the taking of the inventory by client personnel. 1. make inquiries of the client concerning the inventories. 1. supervise the taking of the inventory. 1. make some test counts of inventory quantities. 10) The specific audit objective that all purchase transactions and cash disbursements are valued using GAAP and correctly journalized, summarized, and posted relates to: 1. rights and obligations. 1. completeness. 1. valuation or allocation. 1. existence or occurrence. 11) The specific audit objective that recorded purchases represent goods, services, and productive assets received during the period relates to: 1. rights and obligations. 1. completeness. 1. presentation and disclosure. 1. existence or occurrence. 12) The specific audit objective that all purchases and cash disbursements made during the period were recorded relates to: 1. rights and obligations. 1. completeness. 1. presentation and disclosure. 1. existence or occurrence. 13) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments, investment balances are properly identified and classified in the financial statements, relates to the: 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. presentation or disclosure assertion. 1. rights and obligations assertion. 14) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments, all recorded investments are owned by the reporting entity, relates to the: 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. valuation or allocation assertion. 1. rights and obligations assertion. 15) The specific audit objective for the audit of investments, all investments are included in the balance sheet investment accounts, relates to the: 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. valuation or allocation assertion. 1. rights and obligations assertion. 16) The specific account balance audit objective, plant assets and related expenses are properly identified and classified in the financial statements, relates to the: 1. rights and obligations assertion. 1. completeness assertion. 1. presentation or disclosure assertion. 1. existence or occurrence assertion. 17) The audit significance of the financial ratio, fixed asset turnover, is: 1. this financial ratio provides a reasonableness test of the entity’s proportion of equity that may be compared with prior years’ experience or industry data. 1. an unexpected increase or decrease in the depreciation expense as a percent of depreciable assets may indicate an error in calculating depreciation. 1. this financial ratio provides a test of the entity’s ability to generate earnings to cover the cost of service debt. 1. an unexpected increase in this financial ratio may indicate the failure to record or capitalize depreciable assets. 18) The substantive test of calculating fixed asset turnover is categorized under: 1. initial procedures. 1. analytical procedures. 1. tests of details of balances. 1. tests of details of transactions. 19) In confirming bank deposits, the auditor need NOT: 1. send two copies of the standard confirmation to the bank. 1. send requests for accounts with zero balances at the end of the year. 1. personally mail the requests. 1. have the bank return the original to the client. 20) The standard bank confirmation, developed jointly by the AICPA, the American Bankers Association, and the Bank Administration Institute, requests information about all of the following EXCEPT: 1. loan interest rates. 1. loan balances. 1. deposit balances. 1. secondary endorsements. 21) The control of all funds during the count of cash on hand is meant primarily to prevent: 1. any chance of double counting. 1. unauthorized disbursements. 1. transfers by the client. 1. client personnel from viewing the count procedure. 22) Whether the entity maintains effective controls to provide reasonable assurance that private customer information obtained as a result of e-commerce is protected from uses not related to the entity’s business defines: 1. information protection. 1. risk assessment. 1. transaction integrity. 1. performance measurement. 23) Best practices in approaching risk management include the following steps EXCEPT: 1. calculate revenue losses from risks. 1. analyze and assess risks. 1. identify risks. 1. design strategies for managing risk. 24) In performing an attest engagement, a CPA performs all of the following EXCEPT: 1. gathers evidence to support the assertions. 1. objectively assesses the measurements of assertions. 1. relies on management statements. 1. objectively assesses the communications of the individual making the assertions. 25) Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of the procedures performed in completing the audit? 1. They involve many subjective judgments by the auditor. 1. They are performed after the balance sheet date. 1. They are optional since they have only an indirect impact on the opinion to be expressed. 1. They are usually performed by audit managers or other senior members of the audit team who have extensive audit experience with the client. 26) The auditor relies on the client representation letter to: 1. document the continuing materiality of client representations. 1. guarantee the absence of management fraud. 1. confirm written representations given to the auditor. 1. reduce the possibility of misunderstanding concerning management’s representations. 27) In performing an attest engagement, a CPA performs all of the following EXCEPT: 1. gathers evidence to support the assertions. 1. objectively assesses the measurements of assertions. 1. relies on management statements. 1. objectively assesses the communications of the individual making the assertions. 28) Which of the following is NOT among the specific auditing procedures the auditor performs to obtain additional audit evidence? 1. reading minutes of meetings 1. reviewing evidence concerning litigation, claims, and assessments 1. making subsequent events review 1. obtaining client representation letter 29) In regard to identifying and evaluating subsequent events, AU 560.12 specifies that the auditor inquires of management having responsibility for financial and accounting matters as to all of the following EXCEPT: 1. any significant changes in capital stock, long-term debt, or working capital to the date of inquiry. 1. the minutes of meetings of directors, stockholders, and other appropriate committees. 1. any substantial contingent liabilities or commitments existing at the balance sheet date or date of inquiry. 1. the current status of items previously accounted for on the basis of tentative, preliminary, or inconclusive data. 30) When an investigation of the discovery of facts existing at the report date confirms the existence of the fact and the auditor believes the information is important to those relying or likely to rely on the financial statements, the auditor should immediately: 1. notify the SEC or other regulatory agency. 1. notify the audit committee. 1. take steps to prevent future reliance on the audit report. 1. resign from the engagement. 31) The two main sections of the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct are: 1. Rules of Conduct and Interpretations of the Rules of Conduct. 1. Principles and Ethics Rulings. 1. Principles and Rules of Conduct. 1. Interpretations of the Rules of Conduct and Ethics Rulings. 32) In general, except when explicitly stated otherwise, the Rules of Conduct in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct are applicable to: 1. all professional services. 1. all members and all professional services. 1. all members. 1. all members in public practice. 33) Which one of the following is NOT true of the Principles in the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct? 1. They are set forth as enforceable standards. 1. They are expressions of ideals of professional conduct. 1. They provide a framework for the Rules. 1. They express the basic tenets of ethical conduct. 34) Gross negligence can best be defined as: 1. misrepresentation. 1. criminal fraud. 1. failure to exercise due care. 1. failure to exercise even slight care. 35) Anyone identified to the auditor by name prior to the audit who is to be the principal recipient of the auditor’s report is a 1. foreseen beneficiary. 1. foreseeable party. 1. third party. 1. primary beneficiary. 36) The Fund of Funds case illustrated that auditors could be found liable for failure to report wrong-doings discovered: 1. on any type of engagement for a particular client. 1. even on engagements for other clients. 1. only on audit engagements for a particular client. 1. only on special fraud audits conducted under separate contract.

2015-09-04 • 2 Cards

ECON 545 Business Economics Entire Course

ECON 545 Business Economics Entire Course To Download This Tutorial Visit below Link http://www.studentsoffortunes.com/downloads/econ-545-business-economics-entire-course/, ECON 545 Business Economics Entire Course To Download This Tutorial Visit below Link http://www.studentsoffortunes.com/downloads/econ-545-business-economics-entire-course/, ECON 545 Business Economics Entire Course To Download This Tutorial Visit below Link http://www.studentsoffortunes.com/downloads/econ-545-business-economics-entire-course/, ECON 545 Business Economics Entire Course To Download This Tutorial Visit below Link http://www.studentsoffortunes.com/downloads/econ-545-business-economics-entire-course/, ECON 545 Business Economics Entire Course To Download This Tutorial Visit below Link http://www.studentsoffortunes.com/downloads/econ-545-business-economics-entire-course/

2015-08-12 • 5 Cards

ECON 545 Final Exam Answers

2015-07-28 • 0 Cards

Gallbladder and Biliary tract

Biliary atresia, cholelithiasis, cholesterol stones, cholesterol stone risk factors, bilirubin stones, bilirubin stone risk factors, Gallstone symptoms?, Biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, acute cholecystitis presentation, chronic cholecystitis, chronic cholecystitis presentation, abdoXR, chronic cholecystitis treatment, Ascending Cholangitis, Ascending Cholangitis Presentation

2015-04-20 • 17 Cards

Rehab Medicine- Exam 2

Athersclerosis, Progression of Atherosclerosis, Fatty Streaks, Progression of plaque, Signs/ symptoms of CAD, Diagnosis of CAD, Exercise stress test, Adenosine stress test, Cardiac Catheterization, Treatment for CAD, Pharmacology for CAD- Statins, Pharmacology for CAD- Aspirin, Pharmacology for CAD- Nitroglyn, Pharm. for CAD- Beta Blockers, Pharm for CAD- Calcium channel blockers

2015-04-01 • 32 Cards

Cellular Transport

is the reverse process of endocytosis. It is the process of a cell taking material from inside itself and secreting or expelling it from the cell. The material can be wastes or other chemicals., energy-needing process by which cells transports materials across the cell membrane against a concentration gradient., active transport process where a cell engulfs materials with a portion of the cell's plasma membrane and releases the contents within the cell, active transport process by which materials are secreted or expelled from a cell, passive transport of materials across a plasma membrane by transport proteins embedded in the plasma membrane, in cells, solution in which the concentration of dissolved substances outside the cell is higher than the concentration inside the cell; causes a cell to shrink as water leaves, in cells, solution in which the concentration of dissolved substances is lower in the solution outside the cell than the concentration inside the cell; causes a cell to swell and possibly burst as water enters the cell, in cells, solution in which the concentration of dissolved substances in the solution is the same as the concentration of dissolved substances inside a cell, diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane depending on the concentration of solutes on either side of the membrane, movements of particles across cell membranes by diffusion or osmosis; the cell uses no energy to move particles across the membrane

2015-02-03 • 10 Cards

Invasive

Osmolality, Ionicity, Viscosity, Iodine Concentration, Renografin - Diatrizoate Hypaque Visipaque, Hexabrix - Ioxaglate, Omnipaque - Iohexol Isovue - Iopamidol Optiray - Iversol, Visipaque - Iodixanol, Left Main View, LAD view, First Diagonal View, Diagonals View, Circumflex, OM, Sinus nodal, Atrial Cx, PDA, AV node View, RCA, Conus branch, Sinus node artery View, RVB, acute marginal, right atrial branch Views

2014-08-28 • 48 Cards

Biochem-Unit 2

Define Hydrogen Bonds, Describe steady state: What are the two important things to remember?, Describe the Kd for binding reactions (Hint: There are two scenarios; provide some examples), What is the solvent for most biological systems?, What is the ion product of water?, What is the eq for pH?, What is the eq for pOH?, What is the pH of the cytosol?, On a pH scale, what is the [H+] difference between a molecule at a pH of 1 and another molecule at a pH of 4?, What is the equ for Henderon-Hasselbalch?, If the pH is equal to the pKa, what are the conc of the acid and conjugate base?, What is the equ for pKa?, What do buffers do to the pH?, What factor is determines the buffering region/range?, The buffer's capacity depends on...

2014-08-23 • 85 Cards

Development thru Lifespan Ch6

Attachment, Attachment Q-sort, Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt, Avoidant Attachment, Basic Emotions, Basic Trust vs Mistrust, Categorical Self, Compliance, delay of gratification, difficult child, disorganized/disoriented attachment, easy child, effortful control, emotional self-regulation, empathy

2014-06-23 • 35 Cards

Science Chapter 7

Virus, Host, Parasites, Bacteriophage, Vaccine, Bacteria, Flagellum, Binary Fission, Asexual Reproduction, Sexual Reproduction, Conjugation, Endospore, Pasteurization, Decomposers, Protists

2014-01-23 • 28 Cards

Clinical Med I

2014-01-15 • 0 Cards